1. What is the definition of fetal viability?

• a. Gestation greater than 20 weeks
• b. Fetal size greater than 400 gm
• c. Very active fetal movement
• d. Periodic uterine contraction

2. Which one of the following is a symptom of hypovolemic shock?

• a. Hot, dry, flushed skin
• b. Increased heart rate
• c. Increased blood pressure
• d. Smoky or cloudy urine

3. The nurse caring for a patient experiencing a spontaneous abortion should be aware of which one of the following?

• a. Guilt is never a factor.
• b. Grief generally occurs only when the loss is in the third trimester.
• c. When the fetus is not lost, emotional stress is not experienced.
• d. Patients may experience significant emotional challenges.

4. The major physiologic mechanism that causes DIC is:

• a. Over-activation of the body's clotting process.
• b. Decreased glomerular filtration.
• c. Amniotic fluid forced into maternal circulation.
• d. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets.

5. Which one of the following should the nurse tell a patient discharged after a spontaneous abortion?

• a. Try again as soon as possible.
• b. Decrease fluid intake to decrease bleeding.
• c. Take iron supplements and/or antibiotics as directed.
• d. Douche every other day for at least two weeks.

6. Which one of the following would place a pregnant patient at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?

• a. Sexual transmitted infections (STIs)
• b. Multiple pregnancies
• c. Beginning sexual activity at an early age
• d. Heavy menstrual flow of four days' duration

7. A patient admitted for an ectopic pregnancy and treated with methotrexate needs which one of the following?

• a. Guidelines about immediately increasing her exercise level.
• b. Directions to avoid talking about and grieving the lost pregnancy.
• c. Instructions to avoid foods and vitamins containing folic acid and alcohol.
• d. Encouragement to cut down on fast foods that are high in fat.

8. At a prenatal visit, which one of the following might suggest a hydatidiform mole?

• a. Decreased serum hCG levels
• b. Fetal heart tone much faster than expected
• c. Uterus enlarged beyond expected size
• d. Blood pressure of 120/80 and increased weight

9. The nurse teaches the patient to follow up 1 year after a molar pregnancy to be evaluated for:

• a. Choriocarcinoma.
• b. Hypertension.
• c. Anemia.
• d. Infection.

10. Which one of the following assessments is contraindicated for a patient with a suspected placenta previa?

• a. External fetal monitoring
• b. Determination of fetal lie
• c. Vaginal examination
• d. Non-stress testing to evaluate fetal status

11. Which information found during an assessment of a patient might indicate placental abruption?

• a. Increased intensity of fetal movement
• b. A board-like abdomen and abdominal pain
• c. Tenderness over the lower uterine segment
• d. Decreased heart rate

12. What is the most significant symptom that distinguishes placenta previa from abruptio placentae?

• a. Tachypnea
• b. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
• c. Ruptured membranes
• d. Confusion and disorientation

13. Nursing care of a patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is based on what knowledge?

• a. The condition is always psychological.
• b. Dehydration and starvation can occur.
• c. It is the same as morning sickness.
• d. There is no negative impact on the fetus.

14. Which clinical sign is a classic symptom of preeclampsia?

• a. Hematuria
• b. Bacteria
• c. Proteinuria
• d. Glucosuria

15. What is the only known cure for pregnancy-related hypertension?

• a. Anti-hypertensive medications
• b. Anticonvulsant medications
• c. Glucocorticoid administration
• d. Delivery of the baby

16. A patient with pregnancy-related hypertension is admitted with complaints of visual disturbance changes, severe headaches, and epigastric pain. When the severity of these symptoms increases along with the patient's blood pressure, the nurse should implement which of the following interventions?

• a. Get the emesis basin and prepare for vomiting.
• b. Take a rectal temperature to rule out infection.
• c. Send blood specimen for type and cross match.
• d. Call the appropriate healthcare provider immediately.

17. Which of the following assessments of a patient taking magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia would indicate a toxic level of the medication?

• a. Urine output of 35 ml/hr
• b. Petechiae appear
• c. Bleeding increases
• d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute

18. In the presence of eclampsia, what equipment does the nurse need to prevent injury to the patient during seizures?

• a. An assistive defibrillator
• b. A lumbar puncture tray
• c. An oral airway, oxygen, and BVM
• d. A tracheostomy set and a ventilator

19. Which patient is at an increased risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?

• a. History of macrosomic infant
• b. Maternal age of 25 years
• c. Presence of proteinuria
• d. Underweight before pregnancy

20. Which significant complication is carefully monitored in the newborn infant after being born to a patient with gestational diabetes?

• a. Hypercalcemia
• b. Hypobilirubinemia
• c. Hyperglycemia
• d. Hyperinsulinemia

21. Which one of the following is important in diminishing complications in the patient with gestational diabetes?

• a. Prompt administration of insulin to the newborn after delivery
• b. Self-administration of glucose cola every morning during pregnancy
• c. Close monitoring of glucose and ketones at home during pregnancy
• d. Strict dieting to prevent fetal macrosomia during pregnancy

22. Risk factors for premature rupture of membranes include which of the following?

• a. Hydramnios
• b. Head-down fetal presentation
• c. Consumption of high-fat diet
• d. Cephalopelvic disproportion

23. Glucocorticoids are administered to a patient experiencing preterm labor for what reason?

• a. To stop labor and birth
• b. To treat infection
• c. To increase fetal lung maturity
• d. To serve as an anti-anxiety medication

24. A patient with preterm labor asks the nurse why she needs to rest in the side-lying position. The nurse responds with which one of the following?

• a. "This position gives the baby more space to move."
• b. "The side-lying position improves blood flow to the uterus."
• c. "The position takes pressure off of your back."
• d. "It will help you feel more comfortable during contractions."