Nevada: Terrorism Response for Healthcare Professionals

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You must score 70% or better to pass this course. Select one answer for each question by clicking the circle at the left of your choice. To change your selection, click a different circle. Do not skip any questions.

Test Question

1. Terrorism often reflects motivations that are not strictly criminal, coupled with the desire to elicit fear in a large segment of the population.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

2. Weapons of mass destruction encompass which of the following agents?

a. Physiologic
b. Geographic
c. Geologic
d. Biologic

Test Question

3. A radiologic dispersion device (RDD) is commonly known as a:

a. Nuke.
b. Nuclear radio.
c. Dirty bomb.
d. Pez dispenser.

Test Question

4. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Chemical weapons are much harder for terrorists to manufacture than other WMD.
b. Chemical and biologic weapons can cause more casualties than conventional weapons.
c. Dirty bombs are so-called because they disseminate harmful microbes.
d. Dirty bombs are unattractive to some terrorist groups because they have been successful only in war zones.

Test Question

5. What type of radiation do people connect with a nuclear threat?

a. Nonunion radiation
b. Iatrogenic radiation
c. Ionizing radiation
d. Nosocomial radiation

Test Question

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Radiation can be detected by the human senses.
b. Ionizing radiation, relative to other types of radiation, deposits a large amount of radiation in a small area.
c. Exposure to radiation, such as that from an x-ray machine, can make a person radioactive.
d. Radioactive materials are composed of stable atoms.

Test Question

7. Scientists in the United States continue to use the conventional system of measuring radiation, but scientists elsewhere use SI units.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

8. Which of the following is a form of radiation-induced injury?

a. Incorporation
b. Penetration
c. Iridescence
d. Confabulation

Test Question

9. The early onset of vomiting is a major factor in diagnosis and dose estimation of ARS.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

10. Which of the following statements about cutaneous radiation syndrome (CRS) is correct?

a. Skin damage is always apparent within the first 24 hours.
b. Management is challenging because of the lack of symptoms.
c. Lesions that appear only months after exposure are never life-threatening.
d. Delayed occurrence of lesions differentiates them from thermal burns.

Test Question

11. Addressing contamination issues is even more urgent than treatment of life-threatening injuries.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

12. In a suspected radiation emergency, pregnant ER staff should be assigned elsewhere.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

13. Protective clothing is effective in stopping all radioactive particles.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

14. When treating a patient with contamination, you:

a. Remove clothing by cutting and rolling it away from the face.
b. Seal clothing in a plastic bag to be sent home upon discharge.
c. Wash wounds with hydrogen peroxide.
d. Scrub wounds as vigorously as possible to remove contaminants.

Test Question

15. Repeat CBC analysis to ascertain lymphocyte count several times in the first 12 hours after exposure to radiation.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

16. Though patients who seek radiologic screening may not be contaminated, reassurance is imperative.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

17. Persistent chemical weapons agents may take more than a year to dissipate if they have been deposited on soil, vegetation, or objects.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

18. New chemical agents are being introduced globally on a regular basis, so public health planners should treat exposed persons by:

a. Referring to the government's database on the Internet.
b. Following a protocol that never varies from patient to patient.
c. Clinical syndrome rather than by specific agent.
d. Immediate intervention with charcoal by mouth.

Test Question

19. An example of a covert event is:

a. A situation generally covered by insurance.
b. The deliberate contamination of a consumer product.
c. An event where there is a charge at the door.
d. An explosion in the street.

Test Question

20. With the covert use of a chemical weapon agent, the actual clinical syndrome will vary depending on the type of agent, the amount and concentration of the chemical, and the route of the exposure.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

21. The most effective way to respond initially to a covert chemical release is to:

a. Treat patients by clinical syndromes.
b. Stay on the line with your poison control center until instructions are available.
c. Isolate patients who are symptomatic.
d. Call staff together to be sure all are following the same guidelines.

Test Question

22. With vesicants, or blister agents, symptoms may manifest immediately or be delayed for up to 24 hours.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

23. Inhalation of a nerve agent or OP pesticide will lead to a slower onset of poisoning than will dermal exposure.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

24. Bioterrorism is the act of:

a. Using chemicals to terrorize a population.
b. Using bacteria, toxins, or viruses to cause human disease.
c. Using explosive devices to maim and kill.
d. Using threats of violence to create widespread panic.

Test Question

25. An unannounced or hidden release of a biological organism is:

a. An overt release.
b. An unintentional release.
c. A covert release.
d. More effective than an intentional release.

Test Question

26. The term syndromic surveillance means:

a. Being aware of genetic or other variations in the patient population.
b. Monitoring data to find signs that an outbreak may warrant a public health response.
c. Asking security to be especially careful in lockdown situations.
d. Doing background checks on patients with certain unexplained symptoms.

Test Question

27. One factor that influences the potential public health impact of an intentionally released biological agent is:

a. The apprehension of the suspects who released the agent.
b. The incubation period of the disease organism.
c. Reassurance by the media that everything is under control.
d. Following appropriate decontamination protocols.

Test Question

28. Category A agents and diseases are:

a. Easily disseminated or transmitted from person to person.
b. Moderately easy to disseminate.
c. Emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination.
d. Agents that result in moderate morbidity rates and low mortality rates.

Test Question

29. Nonspecific flu-like symptoms, fever, dyspnea, cough, congestion, and anterior chest discomfort are all symptoms associated with:

a. Botulism.
b. Smallpox.
c. Anthrax.
d. Plague.

Test Question

30. Symmetric descending weakness in a proximal to distal pattern and respiratory dysfunction from respiratory muscle paralysis is suggestive of:

a. Anthrax.
b. Botulism poisoning.
c. Smallpox.
d. Cholera.

Test Question

31. Acute onset of fever, chills, malaise, and myalgias associated with progressive lethargy, a productive cough of copious watery (possibly bloody) mucoid sputum, and chest pain are suggestive of:

a. Smallpox.
b. Pneumonic plague.
c. Ricin poisoning.
d. Bubonic plague.

Test Question

32. The presence of a nonspecific fever and myalgias, followed by a pustular rash on the face and extremities, is suggestive of:

a. Chickenpox.
b. Cutaneous anthrax.
c. Botulism poisoning.
d. Smallpox.

Test Question

33. First receivers are firefighters, law enforcement, and ambulance service personnel.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

34. Pre-decontamination triage:

a. Requires first responders to distinguish contaminated individuals from other patients as they arrive at the hospital.
b. Aims to move all patients through the decontamination system before any treatment begins.
c. Identifies injuries that will require special handling within the decontamination system.
d. Does not require first receivers to wear PPE because the process is fast and the worker's exposure will be negligible.

Test Question

35. Contaminated individuals brought to the hospital should be showered for how long?

a. 1 minute
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. Varies according to the suspected contaminate

Test Question

36. Security personnel can be used:

a. To maintain order in the hallways.
b. To initiate searches for the individuals responsible for the contamination.
c. To make phone calls to the families of victims.
d. To ensure contaminated victims do not bypass the decontamination hospital.

Test Question

37. The OSHA standard requires that a hospital provide either individual or one-size-fits-all PPE attire.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

38. If an incident of bioterrorism occurs, first reporters should notify their department supervisor, the laboratory, and the infection control department.

a. True
b. False

Test Question

39. The recommended method for immediate reporting of a bioterrorism event is:

a. E-mail
b. Telephone
c. Text message via cell phone
d. 911 system

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